With the current violence in Israel continuing without a clear end in sight, Israel is once again receiving support and criticism for its policies. One common refrain found among Israel's supporters is that the inordinate amount of criticism levied against Israel is actually a form of anti-Semitism. When "anti-Israel" protesters reportedly shout "Kill the Jews" while looting Jewish businesses, it is easy to reach this conclusion. But aside from these violent outbreaks, is there any validity to the argument that the more civil rhetorical attacks against Israel are rooted in anti-Semitism? In her Remarks Before 2010 Conference on Combating Anti-Semitism, Special Envoy to Monitor and Combat Anti-Semitism Hannah Rosenthal offers criteria for distinction:
Our State Department uses Natan Sharansky’s framework for identifying when someone or a government crosses the line – when Israel is demonized, when Israel is held to different standards than the rest of the countries, and when Israel is delegitimized. These cases are not disagreements with a policy of Israel, this is anti-Semitism.[Emphasis added]
Writing for the New York Times in 2002, Thomas Friedman offered a similar contrast:
Criticizing Israel is not anti-Semitic, and saying so is vile. But singling out Israel for opprobrium and international sanction -- out of all proportion to any other party in the Middle East -- is anti-Semitic, and not saying so is dishonest.
There are no doubt other opinions and qualifications which answer this question, but I believe that for the Liberal Left - whose members tend to be some of Israel's most vocal and vitriolic critics - the definitions cited above are justifiable based on how it views discrimination in other contexts, particularly regarding the US criminal justice system.